I would be glad to send you my two audio tapes on the Trinity, I think they would be helpful.
But I'll take a quick shot at your question.
First, we need to get the idea of God from the Old Testament and (frakly) from philosophy. God is "throughout the universe." Is He here with me now, and there with you now. If so He is indeed "omnipresent." And His omnipresence is not simply an influence or an essence, but His true presence. Filling heaven and earth. It is not just His toe in Idaho and His finger wherever you are.
Jesus, likewise, is omnipresent (Father, Son, and Holy Spirit being One God).
Jesus is that aspect (person, expression) of God that is visible to human eyes. No man has seen God, but the Son has revealed Him. Jesus (who is in the bosom of the Father) is the Heb. 1.3-4 "outraying" of God. He is projected into our presence in the flesh of Christ (the "enfleshment" of God). So, though God (Father, Son, and Holy Spirit) fill the universe, the incarnation of Christ produced a truly human body that is intact to this day.
So, in heaven, when I see Christ, I will see all the glory of the invisible God projected upon my resurrected eyes in human form.
Let me know if you want the audios. No charge.
I am trying to understand the doctrine of man being created in the "image of God", and I wondered if you might be able to help me?
Genesis 1 states that God created man "in the image of God", and this is usually understood to imply "moral and intellectual likeness". When people imply a visible aspect is included in this "image" (as I believe the 'Word of Faith' people do), this is usually condemned as "idolatrous" and Mormon. However, in R.A. Torrey's work, "What the Bible Teaches", the author seems to conclude that "the image of God" does indeed seem to imply "visible likeness" also. Torrey is careful to note that God is, "in essence", "invisible", but he seems to accept that God still has a peculiar "visible form", and we are created in its likeness. Perhaps I am misreading him?
It is often supposed, with good reason, that any visible appearance of God is actually Jesus Christ. But some scriptures do not seem to fit this:
Acts 7:56 "Look," he said, "I see heaven open and the Son of Man standing at the right hand of God." (Are we to take the first part as visible, and the second part as merely a figure of speech?)
Php. 2:6 "Who, being in very form God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped (The Greek word is 'morphe' here, which implies a visible form. Does God therefore have a visible form other than Christ?)
As someone who has studied theology, and is familiar with both the Mormon and the 'Word of faith' perspective, perhaps you can shed some light on this matter, even explaining the differences, say, between the Reformed idea, Torrey's idea, the 'Word of faith' perspective, and the 'Mormon" idea, and which you believe to be correct. How much diversity of opinion is acceptable on this subject?
Your thoughts would be appreciated, if you have time.