The Mormon's declare the temple is the only place where sacred ordinances like baptism and eternal marriage can be performed in behalf of those who have died. The Apostle Paul referred to this important redemptive work for the dead when he asked, "Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? Why are they then baptized for the dead?" (I Corinthians 15:29).

I believe that Paul was not really clear in this message, and that this message was used for the Mormons to so-call play God Himself when other passages of the bible clearly states that we ourselves are accountable for our own actions/beliefs, so why then do they feel they can undo what the dead has done? Also, if through genealogy they have the right to change what has been done, I might feel threatened that they may want to change whatever I have done and believed, of course I do not believe this can be done. Would you mind elaborating on what Paul's true intention of his writing meant and how the Mormon's can change the future of the dead?

Thank You,




My first response is that we really have no idea what the obscure reference in I Cor. 15 means. Nowhere else in the Bible is there a reference to such a practice. Paul _may_ have been referring to water baptism on behalf of dead people. However, he may not have been thinking of that at all. This chapter is not in any other way connected to baptism. The statement seems out of place.

Some have suggested that, since the chapter is really about the resurrection of the body, Paul may have been suggesting that it is foolish to be baptized if Jesus is not resurrected (ie. is "dead")

In any case, a rule for interpreting scripture is that you never build a major doctrine on such an obscure reference. For example, we have lots of scriptures telling us about water baptism, about adultery, about idolatry, etc. But we have this one, single reference to "baptism for the dead."

It is plain wrong to build a whole theology on something that Bible does not expand upon.